P***a
发帖数: 9 | 1 It should be 1/(n-1).
The desired probability is the probability that r is in the
interval [X(n-m), X(n-m+1)), where X(k) denotes the kth
smallest Xi. There are totally n-1 such kind of intervals.
And each interval is with the same probability. So the
answer has to be 1/(n-1). | w******u
发帖数: 156 | 2
Sorry, the answer I gave you was too complicated and not
quite
relevant. Actually, you can probably use binomial
distribution |
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