D**u
发帖数: 204 | 1 【 以下文字转载自 Quant 讨论区 】
发信人: DuGu (火工头陀), 信区: Quant
标 题: 来一道题(由 BT question 而想)
发信站: BBS 未名空间站 (Sat Mar 6 14:46:26 2010, 美东)
On a 2-dim plane, F is a (real number valued) function on each polygon area
P. We also know that if P is the union of 2 disjoint polygon areas P1 and P2
, then
F(P) = F(P1) + F(P2).
Question: if for every rectangle D (no need to be parallel to x-y axis) we
have F(D) = 0, does that imply that F(P) = 0 for every polygon area P? |
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