k***p
发帖数: 115 | 1 Suppose 0
independent, both are binomial distributed.
Now (X-Y)/N goes to (2a-1)*p as N approaches infty.
let 0
as N approaches infty, the CDF of (X-Y)/N up to b is either 0 or 1,
depending on the relation between b and (2a-1)*p?
Thanks a lot!
| w*******9
发帖数: 1433 | 2 Yes. The limit is zero or one, depending on b. | s******h
发帖数: 539 | 3 There is also a third possibility. Suppose a = 1/2, b = 0, then X, Y ~iid B(
N/2, p). And then by symmetry, Pr( (X - Y)/N <= 0) -> 1/2. |
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